PM RAHAT Scheme 2026: ₹1.5 Lakh Cashless Treatment

PM RAHAT Scheme 2026: Cashless Treatment for Road Accident Victims

The PM RAHAT Scheme, formally called the Prime Minister – Road Accident Victims' Hospitalisation and Assured Treatment Scheme, provides cashless treatment to eligible road accident victims. The scheme was launched nationwide on 13 February 2026 and provides treatment cover of up to ₹1.5 lakh per victim, subject to a maximum period of seven days from the date of the accident.

The scheme applies to qualifying road accidents caused by the use of motor vehicles on any category of road. It also provides stabilization treatment for up to 24 hours in non-life-threatening cases and up to 48 hours in life-threatening cases, subject to the prescribed police-response process at designated hospitals.

PM RAHAT is built around an integrated system involving the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), the National Health Authority (NHA), police authorities, State Health Agencies and designated hospitals. The system connects emergency assistance through 112, accident reporting through eDAR, and hospital treatment and claims through TMS 2.0.

This guide explains who can receive treatment, how the cashless system works, what the ₹1.5 lakh limit means, how the 24-hour and 48-hour provisions work, and what accident victims and families should know.

What Is the PM RAHAT Scheme?

PM RAHAT is a Central Government scheme created under the legal framework of Section 162 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

The original Cashless Treatment of Road Accident Victims Scheme, 2025 was notified on 5 May 2025. Detailed implementation guidelines and standard operating procedures followed in June 2025. The scheme was launched nationwide on 13 February 2026 and was formally renamed the Prime Minister – Road Accident Victims' Hospitalisation and Assured Treatment (PM-RAHAT) Scheme through a February 2026 amendment notification.

The main purpose is to make timely medical treatment available to road accident victims without making immediate payment by the victim the starting point for treatment under the scheme.

What Benefits Does PM RAHAT Provide?

The central benefit is:

Cashless treatment of up to ₹1.5 lakh per victim, subject to a maximum of seven days from the date of the accident.

The scheme does not mean that ₹1.5 lakh is deposited into the victim's bank account.

Instead, it is a ceiling on treatment covered under the scheme's applicable health benefit packages at designated hospitals.

The seven-day provision should also be understood correctly. It means treatment cover is subject to a maximum period of seven days from the accident date. It does not mean that every victim automatically receives seven days of hospital admission.

Who Can Benefit From PM RAHAT?

The scheme covers victims involved in road accidents caused by the use of motor vehicles.

The official framework states that the treatment cover applies to accidents occurring on any category of road. Therefore, the scheme is not restricted to national highways or major highways.

This can include qualifying accidents involving different types of road users. The important issue is whether the incident falls within the scheme's road-accident framework and whether treatment is provided through the designated system.

PM RAHAT should not, however, be described as an unlimited healthcare entitlement for every medical emergency. It is specifically connected with qualifying road accidents involving motor vehicles.

Is PM RAHAT Available on All Roads?

Yes, the official scheme description says the treatment cover applies to qualifying road accidents on any category of road.

The scheme therefore is not limited to:

• National highways

• State highways

• Major city roads

It can apply to qualifying accidents on other categories of roads as well.

The critical condition is that the accident must fall within the scheme's definition involving the use of a motor vehicle.

How Much Treatment Is Covered?

The maximum treatment cover is:

Feature	PM RAHAT provision
Maximum treatment cover	Up to ₹1.5 lakh per victim
Maximum treatment period	7 days from accident date
Road coverage	Any category of road
Stabilization — non-life-threatening	Up to 24 hours
Stabilization — life-threatening	Up to 48 hours
Treatment location	Designated hospitals

The ₹1.5 lakh amount is a maximum treatment-cover limit, not guaranteed cash assistance.

Actual treatment depends on the applicable health benefit packages and the services provided by the designated hospital.

What Does the 24-Hour Rule Actually Mean?

This is one of the most important points to understand.

The PM RAHAT framework does not support presenting 24 hours as a universal deadline by which every victim must be admitted to a hospital or automatically lose eligibility.

Instead, the official scheme states that stabilization treatment can be provided for up to:

• 24 hours in non-life-threatening cases

• 48 hours in life-threatening cases

The corresponding police response/authentication process operates within these prescribed periods.

Therefore, readers should not interpret PM RAHAT as saying:

"You must reach the hospital within 24 hours or the scheme does not apply."

The purpose of the framework is to enable timely emergency treatment while police authentication and digital processing take place.

What Happens After a Road Accident?

After an accident, the priority should always be emergency medical care.

The PM RAHAT system connects accident victims, Good Samaritans, emergency responders, police authorities and hospitals through several digital systems.

Step 1: Call 112 When Emergency Assistance Is Needed

The 112 Emergency Response Support System (ERSS) is integrated with PM RAHAT.

A road accident victim, Good Samaritan or another person at the accident site can use 112 to obtain information about the nearest designated hospital and request ambulance assistance where required.

This is particularly important because the scheme is designed to support timely treatment during the critical period after a traumatic injury.

Step 2: Reach a Designated Hospital

Treatment under PM RAHAT is provided through designated hospitals.

The National Health Authority has issued guidelines for the designation and onboarding of additional hospitals by States and Union Territories.

Readers should therefore avoid assuming that every hospital automatically provides PM RAHAT treatment.

The hospital's designation and participation should be confirmed through the appropriate government or hospital channel.

Step 3: Treatment Begins

Once the victim is admitted, the treatment process is initiated using the applicable Health Benefit Packages developed by the National Health Authority.

This is an important feature of the system because treatment does not depend on the victim personally completing a conventional insurance claim before emergency care can begin.

Step 4: Police Authentication

Police authentication is integrated into the digital workflow.

The hospital generates the relevant treatment identification information through TMS 2.0. The treatment information is then connected to district police authorities through the eDAR system.

The official PM RAHAT description provides police response periods of up to 24 hours, or up to 48 hours for life-threatening cases.

This process should not be confused with a blanket requirement that every victim must personally visit a police station within 24 hours.

What Is eDAR?

eDAR stands for Electronic Detailed Accident Report.

It is used by police authorities for accident reporting and is integrated into the PM RAHAT digital workflow.

The system helps connect accident information with the hospital treatment record.

This allows the scheme to create a digital trail covering the accident, hospital admission, treatment, police authentication, claim processing and payment.

What Is TMS 2.0?

TMS 2.0, or the Transaction Management System of the National Health Authority, is used by participating hospitals for treatment-related processing.

Under PM RAHAT, the system supports:

• Treatment identification

• Treatment records

• Claim submission

• Claim processing

• Payment-related processing

Its integration with eDAR allows information to move between the hospital and police systems as part of the scheme's digital workflow.

How Are Hospitals Reimbursed?

Hospital reimbursement under PM RAHAT is connected to the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund (MVAF).

According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, the fund is supported differently depending on the circumstances of the accident.

For cases involving an insured offending vehicle, contributions from general insurance companies are used.

For uninsured and hit-and-run cases, the government provides budgetary support.

This mechanism is designed to provide hospitals with financial support for eligible treatment instead of requiring the accident victim to arrange immediate payment for covered treatment.

When Are Hospitals Paid?

The government has stated that claims approved by the State Health Agency will be paid to hospitals within 10 days.

This is a hospital reimbursement timeline. It should not be interpreted as a guarantee that every patient will receive approval within 10 days or that every medical expense will automatically be covered.

Does PM RAHAT Depend on Vehicle Insurance?

PM RAHAT's treatment mechanism is designed to operate for eligible road accident victims irrespective of whether the offending vehicle is insured, uninsured or involved in a hit-and-run situation.

The funding mechanism differs according to the circumstances.

For insured offending vehicles, contributions from general insurance companies support the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund. For uninsured and hit-and-run cases, government budgetary support is used.

This does not mean that PM RAHAT eliminates all other insurance or compensation rights. It is a specific cashless-treatment framework.

What If Treatment Costs More Than ₹1.5 Lakh?

PM RAHAT has a maximum treatment-cover limit of ₹1.5 lakh per victim and a maximum period of seven days from the accident date.

Therefore, the scheme should not be described as unlimited free treatment.

If a patient requires additional treatment beyond the PM RAHAT coverage, the financial arrangements may depend on other applicable healthcare schemes, insurance, accident compensation mechanisms or other sources of support.

Families should ask the hospital about the applicable arrangements rather than assuming that all future expenses remain covered by PM RAHAT.

Is Prior Registration Required?

PM RAHAT is not structured like a conventional insurance product in which an individual must purchase a policy before an accident.

The scheme is activated through the road-accident, hospital, police and digital systems after a qualifying accident.

Therefore, readers should not pay an agent to obtain a PM RAHAT "membership card" or advance registration.

What Is the Current PM RAHAT Status in 2026?

PM RAHAT is under nationwide implementation.

According to a Ministry of Road Transport and Highways update released by PIB on 12 August 2026, 22,481 victims had benefited from the scheme across 34 States/UTs as of 31 July 2026.

The same official release provides state-wise implementation information.

For example, the reported total for Andhra Pradesh was 677 cases, comprising 391 approved cases, 244 cases discharged following no police response within the prescribed timelines, and 42 life-threatening cases found ineligible by State Police.

These are implementation figures as of 31 July 2026 and should not be treated as permanent totals. They may change as the scheme expands and additional cases are processed.

PM RAHAT and Andhra Pradesh

PM RAHAT is a Central Government scheme and should not be described as an Andhra Pradesh Government scheme.

However, Andhra Pradesh is among the States/UTs included in the national implementation data.

The latest official figures cited above reported 677 total cases in Andhra Pradesh as of 31 July 2026.

For a person involved in an accident in Andhra Pradesh, the practical question is whether the treatment facility is designated under the PM RAHAT framework and whether the accident and treatment meet the applicable requirements.

Important Points for Accident Victims and Families

If a road accident occurs:

1. Seek emergency medical assistance immediately.

2. Call 112 when emergency response or ambulance assistance is required.

3. Ask about the nearest designated PM RAHAT hospital.

4. Do not delay urgent medical care while trying to complete paperwork.

5. Keep available identity and accident-related documents, but do not assume that a specific document is an automatic eligibility condition unless the hospital or official process requires it.

6. Cooperate with legitimate police verification.

7. Keep hospital records, treatment details and claim-related information.

8. Ask the hospital whether the treatment is being processed under PM RAHAT.

9. Do not pay unofficial agents promising guaranteed PM RAHAT approval.

10. Verify important information through official government sources.

PM RAHAT Fraud Precautions

Government-benefit schemes can attract fraudulent intermediaries.

Readers should be cautious if someone claims that they can:

• Guarantee PM RAHAT approval

• Activate a PM RAHAT card for a fee

• Release the ₹1.5 lakh benefit directly into a bank account

• Speed up police authentication in exchange for money

• Process treatment through an unofficial website

Never share an OTP, UPI PIN, ATM PIN, banking password or other confidential financial credential with an unknown person.

Use official government channels and the hospital's authorized personnel for scheme-related assistance.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is PM RAHAT available on village roads?

The official scheme states that treatment cover applies to qualifying road accidents on any category of road, provided the accident is caused by the use of a motor vehicle.

How much treatment is available under PM RAHAT?

Eligible victims can receive treatment cover of up to ₹1.5 lakh per victim, subject to a maximum period of seven days from the date of the accident.

Is ₹1.5 lakh paid directly to the victim?

No. The ₹1.5 lakh is a treatment-cover ceiling. It should not be described as cash deposited into the victim's bank account.

Does PM RAHAT require admission within 24 hours?

The official material reviewed does not support describing 24 hours as a universal hospital-admission deadline. The 24-hour and 48-hour periods relate to stabilization and police response/authentication under the scheme's prescribed process.

What is the 48-hour rule?

For life-threatening cases, stabilization treatment can be provided for up to 48 hours, subject to the prescribed police-response process.

Can victims call 112?

Yes. PM RAHAT is integrated with the 112 Emergency Response Support System. A victim, Good Samaritan or another person at the accident site can use 112 to obtain information about a nearby designated hospital and request ambulance support.

Is every PM-JAY hospital automatically a PM RAHAT hospital?

No. Hospital designation and onboarding are subject to the applicable PM RAHAT requirements. The government has issued guidelines for designation and onboarding of additional hospitals.

Does PM RAHAT cover uninsured or hit-and-run accidents?

The government states that the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund provides budgetary support for uninsured and hit-and-run cases, within the scheme's framework.

What happens if the treatment bill exceeds ₹1.5 lakh?

PM RAHAT's treatment cover is capped at ₹1.5 lakh and subject to the seven-day limit. Additional treatment arrangements may depend on other applicable insurance, government healthcare schemes or compensation mechanisms.

When was PM RAHAT officially named?

The underlying scheme was notified in May 2025 and launched nationwide in February 2026. The name PM RAHAT was formally substituted through the 19 February 2026 amendment notification.

Key Takeaways

• PM RAHAT was launched nationwide on 13 February 2026.

• It is based on the legal framework of Section 162 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

• Eligible road accident victims can receive treatment cover of up to ₹1.5 lakh.

• The maximum treatment-cover period is seven days from the accident date.

• The scheme applies to qualifying accidents caused by motor vehicles on any category of road.

• Stabilization can be provided for up to 24 hours in non-life-threatening cases and 48 hours in life-threatening cases, subject to the prescribed police-response process.

• 112 is integrated with the scheme for emergency assistance and designated-hospital information.

• eDAR and TMS 2.0 connect police and hospital processing.

• Hospital reimbursement is linked to the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund.

• Approved hospital claims are to be paid within 10 days.

• PM RAHAT is not the same scheme as Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY.

• The ₹1.5 lakh amount is treatment coverage, not direct cash assistance.

• The claim that every victim must be admitted within 24 hours should not be treated as a universal PM RAHAT rule.

Important Disclaimer

Direct Govt News is an independent information website and is not an official government website.

Government schemes, hospital designation, implementation procedures and official statistics can change. Readers should verify important information through current Government of India notifications, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways updates, National Health Authority information and the designated hospital before making decisions.

PM RAHAT does not guarantee that every medical expense will be covered. The scheme's treatment limit, applicable health benefit packages, hospital designation and prescribed verification procedures remain relevant to individual cases.

Related Government Schemes

• Ayushman Bharat Card 2026: Eligibility, Benefits and How It Works
• PM Vishwakarma Yojana 2026: Benefits and Eligibility
• PM Kisan 2026: Eligibility, Benefits and Installment Information

Official Government Sources

• PIB: PM RAHAT – Cashless Treatment of Road Accident Victims
• PIB: PM RAHAT Scheme – Implementation Status
• PIB: Cashless Treatment to Road Accident Victims

AP High Court Civil Judge Recruitment 2026: 119 Posts

AP High Court Civil Judge Recruitment 2026: 119 Posts, Eligibility and Application Details

The High Court of Andhra Pradesh at Amaravati has notified 119 vacancies for Civil Judge (Junior Division) in the Andhra Pradesh State Judicial Service for 2026 through Notification No.118/2026-RC dated 25 September 2026.

The recruitment comprises 96 vacancies through Direct Recruitment and 23 vacancies through Recruitment by Transfer. The notified pay scale for Civil Judge (Junior Division) is ₹77,840–₹1,36,520.

As of 28 September 2026, the application window has not yet opened. The High Court has specified that online applications will be available from 1 October 2026 to 26 October 2026, with submission closing at 11:59 PM on 26 October 2026.

The screening-test date has not yet been announced and will be notified separately.

AP High Court Civil Judge Recruitment 2026 at a Glance

Particular	Official information
Recruiting authority	High Court of Andhra Pradesh
Post	Civil Judge (Junior Division)
Judicial service	Andhra Pradesh State Judicial Service
Notification	No.118/2026-RC
Notification date	25 September 2026
Total vacancies	119
Direct Recruitment	96
Recruitment by Transfer	23
Pay scale	₹77,840–₹1,36,520
Application mode	Online
Application starts	1 October 2026
Last date	26 October 2026, 11:59 PM
Screening-test date	To be notified

The recruitment is governed by the Andhra Pradesh State Judicial (Service and Cadre) Rules, 2026.

What Does the 119-Post Recruitment Actually Cover?

The notification creates two separate routes into the Civil Judge (Junior Division) recruitment:

• Direct Recruitment – 96 posts

• Recruitment by Transfer – 23 posts

These routes should not be treated as interchangeable.

Direct recruitment is intended for eligible candidates who are not already in the government services covered by the transfer provisions. Recruitment by transfer is restricted to specified employees and officers who satisfy the prescribed service and law-degree conditions.

Therefore, a person should first establish which recruitment route applies to them before relying on the vacancy or eligibility details.

1. Direct Recruitment: Who Can Apply?

For direct recruitment, the notification states that law graduates who obtained their law degree within the one-year period preceding the date of notification are eligible to appear for the 2026 Civil Judge (Junior Division) recruitment.

This is important because the notification does not simply describe eligibility as "practicing advocates."

A direct-recruitment applicant must also satisfy the prescribed general conditions relating to citizenship, character and other disqualifications specified in the notification.

Among the conditions, the notification states that a person is not eligible if, among other circumstances, the person:

• is not an Indian citizen;

• has been dismissed, removed or compulsorily retired from specified government or statutory/local-authority service;

• has been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude;

• has been permanently debarred or disqualified from examinations or selections by the relevant authorities;

• has committed specified examination misconduct or falls within other disqualifying circumstances set out in the notification.

Applicants should therefore read the full qualification provisions rather than relying only on the basic LLB requirement.

2. Recruitment by Transfer: Who Is Eligible?

The transfer route is considerably narrower.

Applicants must possess a law degree awarded by a university established by law in India and must be a confirmed member or approved probationer in one of the categories specified by the notification.

The listed categories include specified employees such as:

• officers and staff of the High Court of Andhra Pradesh;

• specified personnel in the District Judiciary;

• specified officers and prosecutors in the Andhra Pradesh Prosecution Service;

• Section Officers in the Andhra Pradesh Law Department;

• Section Officers in the Legislature Department;

• specified managers and personnel connected with the Advocate General, Government Pleaders and Public Prosecutors.

The notification also requires service-related documentation, including proof relating to probation, permission to prosecute the law degree after entering service, service and conduct certification and, at verification, a current No-Objection Certificate from the employer.

A person should not assume that any government employee with an LLB can apply through transfer. The employee's category must fall within the categories specified by the notification.

3. Age Limit

The age calculation is based on 1 September 2026.

Direct Recruitment

A direct-recruitment applicant must not have completed 35 years of age as on 1 September 2026.

The notification provides an upper-age relaxation of:

• 5 years for SC;

• 5 years for ST;

• 5 years for BC;

• 5 years for EWS;

• 10 years for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities.

The notification also contains a provision concerning exclusion of qualifying Defence-service periods when calculating age for eligible applicants.

Recruitment by Transfer

An applicant under Recruitment by Transfer must not have completed 48 years of age as on 1 September 2026.

Candidates should calculate their age using the date prescribed in the notification rather than the date on which they submit the online form.

4. Reservation and Certificates

The 96 direct-recruitment vacancies are distributed across Open Competition, EWS, BC groups, SC groups and ST categories. The notification also specifies horizontal reservation provisions for women and Persons with Benchmark Disabilities.

The notified direct-recruitment distribution is:

• Open Competition: 39

• EWS: 9

• BC Group-A: 7

• BC Group-B: 10

• BC Group-C: 1

• BC Group-D: 6

• BC Group-E: 4

• SC Group-I: 1

• SC Group-II: 7

• SC Group-III: 6

• ST: 6

This totals 96 direct-recruitment posts.

The transfer vacancies consist of:

• Open Competition: 18

• SC Group-I: 1

• SC Group-III: 1

• ST: 3

for a total of 23 posts.

Candidates claiming reservation must meet the relevant certificate requirements.

For example, the notification requires BC applicants claiming reservation to submit the latest community and Non-Creamy Layer documentation specified by the notification. EWS applicants must provide the prescribed latest EWS certificate, including the income condition stated in the notification.

Applicants should not assume that possession of a general community certificate alone is sufficient for every reservation claim.

5. Documents to Be Uploaded

For direct recruitment, the notification identifies documents including evidence of:

• date of birth/SSC;

• law degree;

• community certificate where applicable;

• Non-Creamy Layer certificate for applicable BC reservation claims;

• EWS certificate where applicable;

• PwBD certificate from the prescribed Medical Board where applicable;

• Ex-Servicemen discharge certificate where applicable.

The High Court also requires original certificates to be produced for verification when called. Failure to produce required originals can result in rejection of candidature.

For recruitment by transfer, additional service-related documents are required, including proof of probation, employer permission concerning the law degree, service and conduct certificate and the required No-Objection Certificate.

Because the notification does not establish every detail of the future online form interface, applicants should follow the actual instructions displayed on the official application portal when it opens.

6. Screening Test

The first examination stage is a Computer Based Screening Test.

The notification specifies:

• 100 objective-type multiple-choice questions;

• 100 marks;

• two hours;

• minimum 40% marks for consideration for shortlisting;

• shortlisting at a ratio of 1:10 of the available vacancies.

The screening-test marks are not added to the written-examination marks or final merit.

This means that scoring 40% should not be interpreted as an automatic entitlement to appear in the written examination. The notification expressly says that securing the minimum qualifying marks does not by itself confer a right to be considered for the written examination.

The High Court will also call candidates with identical marks where the tie affects the prescribed shortlisting point.

7. Written Examination

Candidates shortlisted from the screening test will face three written papers.

Paper I — Civil Laws

100 marks, three hours.

Paper II — Criminal Laws

100 marks, three hours.

Paper III — English

100 marks, three hours, divided into:

• Part I: Translation — 40 marks

• Part II: Legal Essay Writing — 60 marks

The translation component includes translation between English and Telugu. The essay component tests legal-subject essay writing. Candidates must obtain 40% in each part of Paper III.

Paper III is qualifying in nature. Its marks are not used for the final selection calculation.

The marks in Paper I and Paper II, together with the Viva Voce marks, are used for selection.

8. Minimum Written Marks for Reaching the Viva

The required written-examination threshold varies by recruitment category.

For direct recruitment:

• Open Competition/EWS: at least 55% in Paper I and Paper II individually and at least 60% aggregate in the written examination.

• BC: at least 50% in Paper I and Paper II individually and at least 55% aggregate.

• SC/ST/PwBD: at least 45% in Paper I and Paper II individually and at least 50% aggregate.

For recruitment by transfer:

• at least 55% in Paper I and Paper II individually; and

• at least 60% aggregate in the written examination.

These are requirements for eligibility for the Viva Voce stage.

9. Viva Voce and Final Selection

The Viva Voce carries 50 marks.

Following the written-examination result, candidates will be called for the Viva Voce in a ratio of 1:3 of the available vacancies in the respective categories, subject to the tie provisions in the notification.

The final selection also has minimum aggregate requirements.

For direct recruitment:

• Open Competition/EWS: at least 60% in written examination plus Viva;

• BC: at least 55%;

• SC/ST/PwBD: at least 50%.

For recruitment by transfer:

• at least 60% in the written examination plus Viva.

The notification also specifies tie-breaking provisions involving age and, where necessary, educational qualification.

Therefore, there are several distinct thresholds in the recruitment process. Candidates should not confuse the 40% screening-test threshold with the final selection requirement.

10. Examination Fee

The notification specifies:

• Open Category/EWS/BC: ₹1,500

• SC/ST/PwBD: ₹750

The fee is payable online and is stated to be non-refundable even if an application is rejected or the notification is cancelled.

There is an additional qualification in the notification stating that only applicants belonging to a community recognized as SC/ST in Andhra Pradesh are entitled to the concessional ₹750 payment. Candidates whose eligibility falls into a special category should therefore read the fee provision carefully before payment rather than assuming that every category receives the concession.

11. Examination Centres

The Computer Based Screening Test is scheduled to be conducted at the following centres listed in the notification:

1. Guntur

2. Kurnool

3. Rajahmundry (Rajamahendravaram)

4. Tirupati

5. Vijayawada

6. Visakhapatnam

Applicants may choose three centres in order of preference.

However, the High Court reserves the right to allot a different centre or create/abolish a centre for administrative reasons. Requests for changing the allotted examination centre will not be entertained according to the notification.

The venue and time will be provided through the hall ticket.

12. Application Dates

The official schedule currently specifies:

Online application starts: 1 October 2026

Last date: 26 October 2026

Closing time: 11:59 PM on 26 October 2026

Hall-ticket availability: before the screening test

Screening-test date: to be notified

The notification states that the High Court may modify dates if necessary and that any revised dates will be published on its website.

As of 28 September 2026, candidates should therefore prepare their documents but should not treat the application window as already open.

13. How to Apply

The official notification states that applications will be accepted online through the High Court of Andhra Pradesh website and that no other mode of application will be entertained.

When the application window opens, applicants should:

1. Visit the official High Court of Andhra Pradesh website.

2. Open the Recruitment section.

3. Locate Notification No.118/2026-RC for Civil Judge (Junior Division).

4. Read the notification and application instructions before beginning the form.

5. Select the appropriate recruitment route.

6. Enter personal, educational and service information exactly as required.

7. Upload the certificates specified for the applicable category.

8. Pay the prescribed application/examination fee.

9. Carefully review the information before final submission.

10. Retain the submitted application and payment records for future reference.

The exact portal fields and technical upload instructions should be taken from the live application system when it opens rather than from unofficial recruitment websites.

14. Important Instructions Before Final Submission

The notification contains several provisions that are easy to overlook.

The particulars submitted in the application are treated as final. Once documents are uploaded and the application is submitted, the notification states that candidates will not be permitted to edit options or replace documents.

Incomplete or incorrect applications may be rejected.

The High Court also states that suppression of information or submission of false information can lead to rejection and may result in further action according to law.

Candidates should therefore check:

• name and date of birth;

• law-degree information;

• category;

• reservation certificate;

• Non-Creamy Layer certificate where applicable;

• EWS certificate where applicable;

• PwBD documentation where applicable;

• service details for transfer applicants;

• examination-centre preferences;

• payment details.

Do not upload documents merely because an unofficial website lists them. Follow the requirements displayed by the High Court.

15. What Happens After Selection?

Selection does not immediately mean that the candidate enters the regular Civil Judge pay scale.

The notification states that selected and appointed candidates will initially be designated as Trainee Judicial Officers and will undergo a compulsory one-year intensive training at the Judicial Academy.

During that period, the trainee is paid a fixed emolument equivalent to one-half of the remuneration payable to a Civil Judge (Junior Division), along with the facilities and benefits specified for trainees.

After successful completion of that training, the trainee undergoes a further one-year structured Law Clerkship.

The notification states that the Law Clerkship consists of:

• six months under the supervision of the Principal District/District and Sessions Judges or members of the Higher Judicial Service; and

• six months under the supervision of a Judge of the High Court of Andhra Pradesh.

After completion, an evaluation of performance and suitability is made. Satisfactory evaluation is followed by appointment to the regular post and entitlement to the regular pay scale and associated service benefits.

This post-selection process is therefore an important part of understanding the recruitment.

16. What Is Confirmed and What Is Still Pending?

Confirmed by the 25 September 2026 notification

• 119 vacancies

• 96 direct-recruitment posts

• 23 transfer posts

• application dates

• age limits

• qualification requirements

• reservation provisions

• examination structure

• written-examination thresholds

• Viva Voce marks

• application fee

• screening-test centres

• document requirements

• training and Law Clerkship provisions.

Still to be notified or updated

The notification states that the date of the Screening Test will be notified in due course.

The hall-ticket details, including examination venue and time, will therefore need to be checked through subsequent High Court notifications.

Candidates should also monitor the official website for any subsequent amendments or revised instructions.

17. Check the Latest Official Notification Before Applying

Because recruitment information can be amended, applicants should verify the following immediately before submitting the form:

• whether the 119 vacancies have changed;

• application start and closing dates;

• age eligibility;

• category-wise reservation;

• certificate validity;

• fee;

• application instructions;

• screening-test date;

• examination centre information;

• hall-ticket instructions;

• any corrigendum or subsequent notification.

The High Court specifically instructs applicants to keep themselves informed through its website until completion of the recruitment process.

Check the AP High Court Recruitment Section

Do not rely on a social-media post, forwarded message or unofficial recruitment website when a later official notification is available.

Key Takeaways

• Notification No.118/2026-RC covers 119 Civil Judge (Junior Division) posts in the Andhra Pradesh State Judicial Service.

• 96 posts are through Direct Recruitment and 23 posts through Recruitment by Transfer.

• Direct recruitment requires the law-degree qualification specified by the notification; practicing as an advocate should not be assumed to be a separate requirement unless a later official clarification says otherwise.

• Direct-recruitment applicants must ordinarily be below 35 years as on 1 September 2026, subject to the specified relaxations. Transfer applicants must be below 48.

• The application window is 1 October to 26 October 2026, 11:59 PM.

• The screening test has 100 questions for 100 marks and is used for shortlisting; its marks do not form part of final merit.

• Paper III is qualifying, while Papers I and II and the Viva are used for selection.

• Category-specific minimum marks apply at both the written and final-selection stages.

• Candidates claiming reservation need the prescribed current certificates and may have additional Non-Creamy Layer or EWS documentation requirements.

• The screening-test date has not yet been announced.

• Candidates should rely on the High Court's official recruitment notifications for subsequent changes.

Disclaimer

Direct Govt News is an independent information website and is not the High Court of Andhra Pradesh or a government recruitment authority. Government recruitment rules, dates, vacancies, eligibility conditions and application procedures may be amended through subsequent official notifications. Eligibility, shortlisting, verification and appointment are determined by the competent authority. Candidates should verify the latest official notification and application instructions on the High Court of Andhra Pradesh website before submitting an application, documents or fee.

Candidates exploring other Andhra Pradesh government recruitment opportunities can also see the APPSC Forest Beat Officer Recruitment 2026 for details about its notification, eligibility and selection process.

Readers also considering other public-sector recruitment opportunities can review the SBI Trade Finance Officer Recruitment 2026 and check its separate eligibility and application requirements.

SBI Trade Finance Officer Recruitment 2026: Eligibility & Apply

SBI Trade Finance Officer Recruitment 2026: Eligibility, Documents and Application Guide

The State Bank of India (SBI) is recruiting Trade Finance Officers under Specialist Cadre Officer Advertisement No. CRPD/SCO/2026-27/15 on a regular basis. The recruitment covers two grades — Trade Finance Officer–IBG, JMGS-I and Trade Finance Officer–IBG, MMGS-II — with a combined 35 vacancies.

SBI's current Careers page shows that online registration has been extended to September 28, 2026. The original recruitment notification was issued on August 29, 2026.

This recruitment is aimed at candidates who already have relevant trade-finance experience in a scheduled commercial bank. Graduation by itself is not enough. Candidates must also meet the prescribed experience and IIBF Certification in Forex Operations requirements.

What SBI Is Recruiting

The recruitment is for the following two positions:

Post	Vacancies	Age on 31 July 2026	Minimum relevant experience
Trade Finance Officer–IBG, JMGS-I	14	21–30 years	1 year
Trade Finance Officer–IBG, MMGS-II	21	23–32 years	3 years
Total	35	—	—

The posts are regular Specialist Cadre Officer positions.

SBI lists Hyderabad and Kolkata as suggested places of posting, but this does not mean that selected candidates are guaranteed either location. The notification states that selected candidates may be posted anywhere in India according to the Bank's requirements.

The Most Important Eligibility Point

This recruitment should not be treated as a general graduate banking vacancy.

For both grades, SBI requires:

• Graduation in any discipline from a Government-recognized university or institution.

• Certification in Forex Operations from IIBF, with the certificate dated on or before July 31, 2026.

• Relevant post-qualification experience in trade-finance processing in an officer/official role in a scheduled commercial bank.

The experience requirement differs by grade.

For JMGS-I, the minimum is one year of relevant post-qualification experience in trade-finance processing and operations, preferably in a maker role.

For MMGS-II, the minimum is three years of relevant post-qualification experience in trade-finance processing in an officer/official role in a scheduled commercial bank.

This distinction matters because a candidate who has a degree but does not have the required banking experience does not become eligible simply by possessing the IIBF certificate.

JMGS-I and MMGS-II: What Is the Difference?

Trade Finance Officer–IBG, JMGS-I

For JMGS-I, SBI specifies:

• Age: 21 to 30 years as on July 31, 2026.

• Graduation in any discipline.

• IIBF Certification in Forex Operations.

• Minimum one year of post-qualification experience in trade-finance processing and operations in an officer/official role in a scheduled commercial bank.

• Maker-role experience is preferred.

• SBI also lists communication, presentation and processing skills among the required skills.

Trade Finance Officer–IBG, MMGS-II

For MMGS-II, SBI specifies:

• Age: 23 to 32 years as on July 31, 2026.

• Graduation in any discipline.

• IIBF Certification in Forex Operations.

• Minimum three years of post-qualification experience in trade-finance processing in an officer/official role in a scheduled commercial bank.

• Communication, presentation and processing skills are also specified.

SBI lists several additional trade-finance certifications as preferred, rather than mandatory. These include certifications such as CDCS, CSDG, CTFP, GTC and CITF, subject to the conditions in the notification.

Eligible candidates may apply for both posts, provided they satisfy the respective requirements.

Vacancy Distribution

The 35 vacancies are divided as follows:

Grade	SC	ST	OBC	EWS	UR	Total
JMGS-I	2	1	3	1	7	14
MMGS-II	3	1	5	2	10	21
Total	5	2	8	3	17	35

SBI states that the vacancies are provisional and may change according to the Bank's actual requirements. PwBD reservation is horizontal and included within the respective parent categories.

Age Relaxation and Category Conditions

The maximum ages above apply to the unreserved category.

SBI provides applicable upper-age relaxation for eligible reserved-category candidates. The notification specifies:

• OBC Non-Creamy Layer: 3 years

• SC/ST: 5 years

• PwBD UR/EWS: 10 years

• PwBD OBC: 13 years

• PwBD SC/ST: 15 years

The notification also states that cumulative age relaxation is not available under multiple provisions. Candidates seeking reservation or age relaxation must possess the required certificates in the prescribed form.

OBC candidates should pay particular attention to the Non-Creamy Layer requirement. SBI specifies that an appropriate OBC certificate containing the required Non-Creamy Layer provision must be produced when required.

What Does a Trade Finance Officer Do?

The recruitment is specifically connected with trade-finance processing rather than general banking operations.

For the JMGS-I Maker role, the notification describes responsibilities including entering trade transactions, uploading relevant documents, scrutinising documents before approval and entering screening information.

For the MMGS-II Checker role, responsibilities include checking transaction details, scrutinising documents, supporting sanctions and anti-money-laundering screening, and validating regulatory compliance.

The notification also specifies shift-based work. The listed shifts include timings such as 6:00 am–3:00 pm, 9:00 am–6:00 pm, 1:30 pm–10:30 pm and 9:00 pm–6:00 am. SBI states that shift timings may change according to Bank requirements.

Therefore, candidates should understand that this position can involve operational processing, compliance-related checking and shift work.

Pay Scale and Probation

SBI's notification specifies the following basic-pay scales:

JMGS-I: ₹48,480–2,000/7–₹62,480–2,340/2–₹67,160–2,680/7–₹85,920.

MMGS-II: ₹64,820–2,340/1–₹67,160–2,680/10–₹93,960.

For JMGS-I, SBI specifies a six-month probation period. The notification also lists benefits and allowances such as DA, HRA, CCA, Provident Fund, NPS, Leave Fare Concession and medical facilities, subject to the applicable Bank rules.

These figures describe the notified pay scale; they should not be interpreted as a guaranteed monthly take-home amount.

Selection Process

There is no written examination specified in this recruitment notification.

The selection process consists of:

1. Shortlisting

SBI will shortlist candidates using parameters determined by its shortlisting committee.

Meeting the minimum educational and experience requirements does not automatically guarantee an interview call. SBI expressly states that the decision to call candidates for interview rests with the Bank.

2. Interview

The interview carries 100 marks.

The qualifying marks will be decided by SBI.

3. Merit List

The merit list will be prepared in descending order based on interview scores.

If candidates have the same marks at the cut-off point, SBI states that age in descending order will be used for ranking.

Interview communication will be sent by email or uploaded on the SBI website; the notification says that no hard copy will be sent.

Documents Applicants Should Prepare

The old recruitment article listed only a limited group of documents. SBI's notification provides a more extensive list.

Applicants should prepare the documents required by the application system, including:

• Recent photograph

• Signature

• Detailed resume

• Identity proof

• Proof of date of birth

• Degree certificate

• IIBF Certification in Forex Operations

• Experience certificates

• Caste certificate, where applicable

• PwBD certificate, where applicable

• Preferred professional certification, where applicable

• Biodata form prescribed by SBI

• Form-16 or offer letter from the current employer, as applicable

• NOC from the present employer where required

• Mandatory undertaking specified for this recruitment

SBI states that relevant experience certificates should specifically establish the required experience. Missing required documents can affect consideration for shortlisting or interview.

Applicants should therefore check the SBI notification and the application page before uploading documents rather than relying on a generic recruitment checklist.

Application Process

The application is online through the SBI Careers website.

The practical sequence is:

1. Open SBI's Current Openings page.

2. Locate Advertisement No. CRPD/SCO/2026-27/15.

3. Download and read the official recruitment notification.

4. Open the official Apply Online link associated with that advertisement.

5. Register using a valid email address and mobile number.

6. Save the registration number and password generated by the system.

7. Complete the personal, educational and professional details.

8. Upload the photograph, signature and required documents in the prescribed formats.

9. Pay the applicable application fee through the integrated payment facility.

10. Review the application carefully before final submission.

11. Submit the application.

12. Save or print the system-generated application and payment receipt for future reference.

SBI states that changes or corrections are not permitted after the application window closes, and applicants should retain their registration and application details.

Application Fee

The notified fee is:

• General/EWS/OBC: ₹750

• SC/ST/PwBD: No application fee/intimation charge

The fee is non-refundable. SBI states that payment is made through the online payment gateway associated with the application.

Important Conditions Before You Apply

Several conditions in the official notification deserve more attention than they normally receive in recruitment summaries.

Your experience must be relevant

SBI specifies post-essential-qualification experience. Applicants should not assume that unrelated banking experience will automatically count as trade-finance experience.

Teaching and training experience is excluded

The notification specifically states that teaching and training experience will not be counted for eligibility.

Government and public-sector employees may need an NOC

Candidates working in government organisations, public-sector undertakings or public-sector banks are required to comply with SBI's NOC requirements.

Selection remains subject to verification

Even if a candidate is shortlisted or selected provisionally, SBI requires verification of eligibility, credentials and documents. Other requirements such as medical examination and antecedent verification can also apply.

Posting is not guaranteed to Hyderabad or Kolkata

These are suggested locations in the notification. SBI retains discretion regarding posting and may place selected candidates elsewhere in India.

What Is Confirmed About the September 28 Deadline?

There is an important date distinction.

The original SBI notification dated August 29, 2026 showed online registration and fee payment from August 29 to September 19, 2026.

However, SBI's current Careers page now explicitly states that online registration for Advertisement No. CRPD/SCO/2026-27/15 has been extended to September 28, 2026.

Because the extension is a time-sensitive update, applicants should use the current SBI Careers page and the live application system to confirm that the application facility remains available before submitting the form or payment.

Do not rely on an old screenshot, social-media post or recruitment article if the official portal displays different information.

Use Only SBI's Official Recruitment Channel

SBI's notification specifically warns candidates about external platforms, consultants, individuals or digital channels claiming to provide guaranteed selection, influence in recruitment or insider guidance. SBI directs candidates to rely on information available through its official career portal.

Applicants should therefore:

• Use the SBI Careers website for the recruitment notification.

• Use the official application link connected to the advertisement.

• Avoid paying unofficial agents who promise selection.

• Never share OTPs, passwords or banking credentials with an unofficial intermediary.

• Verify any change in deadline or recruitment conditions on SBI's own website.

Check the Latest Official Information Before Applying

Because the application deadline has already been extended once, candidates should verify the following immediately before submitting:

• Whether the application window is still open

• The displayed deadline

• Applicable fee

• Eligibility requirements

• Required certificates

• Document-upload requirements

• Any corrigendum or revised instruction

• The official application link

• Any subsequent interview or recruitment notice

SBI Careers — Current Openings

The official recruitment notification should also be read in full before submission.

Key Takeaways

• SBI has notified 35 Trade Finance Officer–IBG vacancies under Advertisement No. CRPD/SCO/2026-27/15.

• The vacancies comprise 14 JMGS-I posts and 21 MMGS-II posts.

• Graduation alone is not sufficient; the required IIBF Certification in Forex Operations and relevant post-qualification banking experience are also important.

• JMGS-I requires at least one year of relevant experience, while MMGS-II requires at least three years.

• Selection is through shortlisting and interview, with the interview carrying 100 marks.

• Meeting minimum eligibility does not guarantee an interview call.

• Hyderabad and Kolkata are suggested posting locations, not guaranteed locations.

• SBI's current Careers page shows the application deadline as September 28, 2026.

• Applicants should rely on SBI's official Careers page and notification for any final update.

Disclaimer

Direct Govt News is an independent information website and is not a government department, SBI recruitment office or authorised application centre unless explicitly stated otherwise.

Recruitment conditions, dates, procedures and other requirements can change through official updates or corrigenda. Eligibility, shortlisting, selection and appointment are determined by the responsible authority. Applicants should read the latest SBI notification and verify the official application instructions before submitting personal information or paying any application fee.

Related Government Recruitment: Candidates also looking for other government job opportunities can read our guide to the APPSC Forest Beat Officer Recruitment 2026, including vacancies, eligibility and application information.

APPSC Forest Beat Officer Recruitment 2026: Notification 18/2026

APPSC Forest Beat Officer Recruitment 2026: Notification 18/2026, Eligibility, Exam and Application Dates

The Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (APPSC) has issued Notification No. 18/2026 for direct recruitment to the post of Forest Beat Officer (FBO) in the A.P. Forest Subordinate Service. The brief notification is dated 15 September 2026 and currently lists 23 provisional vacancies with a published pay scale of ₹25,220–₹80,910.

There is an important point candidates should understand before relying on recruitment summaries published online: the 2026 recruitment information is being released in stages. APPSC has published the brief notification, while the detailed notification is expected on or before 16 October 2026. Therefore, some important eligibility, reservation, physical-standard and application details should not be treated as final until the detailed notification is available.

This guide separates the information currently available from details that applicants should verify when the detailed notification is released.

APPSC Forest Beat Officer Recruitment 2026: What Is Confirmed?

The current recruitment information identifies the following:

Recruitment detail	Current information
Recruiting authority	Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission
Post	Forest Beat Officer
Service	A.P. Forest Subordinate Service
Notification	No. 18/2026
Notification date	15 September 2026
Vacancies	23, provisional
Published pay scale	₹25,220–₹80,910
Application start	16 October 2026
Application closing date	5 November 2026, 11:59 PM
Detailed notification	Expected on or before 16 October 2026
Examination date	To be announced separately

APPSC's official recruitment page confirms Notification No. 18/2026 and identifies it as the Forest Beat Officer recruitment in the A.P. Forest Subordinate Service.

The vacancies are provisional, so candidates should not assume that the figure of 23 is permanently fixed until the recruitment process reaches the relevant stage and any amendments or revised vacancy information are taken into account.

When Can Candidates Apply?

The scheduled online application period is:

• Application begins: 16 October 2026

• Last date: 5 November 2026

• Closing time: 11:59 PM

As of 28 September 2026, the application window has not yet reached its scheduled opening date.

This means candidates should be careful with websites or social-media posts that suggest applications are already open. The safest approach is to use the APPSC website and wait for the post-specific application facility to be enabled.

The detailed notification is expected on or before 16 October 2026. Because that notification can contain the final recruitment rules and application instructions, candidates should read it before submitting the application.

Educational Qualification

The current recruitment information identifies Intermediate or an equivalent qualification as the educational qualification for the Forest Beat Officer post.

Candidates should nevertheless read the detailed notification for the precise wording concerning:

• the qualification-recognition requirement;

• equivalent qualifications;

• the date by which the qualification must have been obtained; and

• any certificate or documentary requirements.

A candidate should not assume that simply having studied at Intermediate level automatically resolves every eligibility requirement. The detailed notification remains the controlling document.

Age Limit: Do Not Rely on Older FBO Recruitment Rules

One of the weaknesses in many recruitment summaries is carrying forward the age limit from an earlier recruitment cycle.

The old article stated an age range of 18–30 years and then added specific relaxation periods. Those figures should not be treated as confirmed Notification No. 18/2026 rules unless they are stated in the detailed 2026 notification.

Candidates should specifically check the detailed notification for:

• minimum age;

• maximum age;

• crucial date for calculating age;

• category-wise relaxation;

• rules for ex-servicemen or other eligible groups;

• any special age provisions;

• applicable reservation rules.

This distinction matters because eligibility rules can differ between recruitment notifications even for the same post.

Physical Standards and Walking Test

Forest Beat Officer recruitment is not solely an academic examination.

The recruitment scheme provides for a walking test and medical examination, with the Forest Department responsible for arranging these stages in accordance with the recruitment procedure. The published scheme also provides for candidates to be taken forward in a 1:2 ratio against the number of vacancies for these stages.

However, candidates should not use physical measurements copied from older FBO recruitment articles or social-media posts as the definitive 2026 standard.

The detailed Notification No. 18/2026 should be checked for the applicable:

• height requirement;

• chest measurement or expansion requirement, where applicable;

• walking-test distance and time;

• applicable concessions;

• medical requirements;

• category-specific provisions.

Until those details are confirmed in the applicable 2026 notification, publishing precise measurements as though they are final would create unnecessary risk for applicants.

Pay Scale: What Does ₹25,220–₹80,910 Mean?

The published pay scale for the Forest Beat Officer post is ₹25,220–₹80,910.

This should be understood as a pay-scale range, not as a promise that every selected candidate will immediately receive ₹80,910 per month.

Actual remuneration can depend on the applicable service rules, pay level, allowances, deductions and other government provisions.

Candidates should therefore avoid interpreting the upper end of the pay scale as guaranteed starting take-home pay.

Similarly, claims about particular allowances, insurance arrangements or exact monthly take-home amounts should be checked against the applicable government service rules rather than copied from recruitment advertisements.

Written Examination: What Candidates Should Prepare For

The recruitment scheme associated with the Forest Beat Officer post provides a more detailed examination structure than the old article suggested.

The scheme includes a qualifying descriptive essay, followed by two objective papers:

Qualifying Test

• Essay writing

• English, Telugu or Urdu

• One question

• 45 minutes

• 50 marks

• Topic related to forests and environment

The essay is a qualifying test, so candidates should not treat its 50 marks as part of the 200-mark merit total described for the two objective papers.

Paper I — General Studies and Mental Ability

• Objective type

• 100 questions

• 100 marks

• 100 minutes

The syllabus covers areas including general science, current events and Andhra Pradesh-related topics, together with the specified General Studies and Mental Ability areas.

Paper II — General Science and General Mathematics

• Objective type

• 100 questions

• 100 marks

• 100 minutes

• SSC standard

The two objective papers together account for 200 marks in the examination scheme.

Negative Marking

The published scheme states that a wrong answer attracts a penalty of one-third of the marks prescribed for the question.

Candidates should therefore read questions carefully rather than treating every unanswered or uncertain question as an opportunity for random guessing.

Selection Is More Than the Written Examination

It is inaccurate to describe the recruitment simply as a computer-based written examination followed by appointment.

The recruitment scheme includes several stages.

A simplified representation is:

Qualifying essay → objective written examination → candidates shortlisted for subsequent physical/medical stages → walking test → medical examination → other applicable qualifying requirements

The walking test and medical examination are important because the post involves forest-service duties and the recruitment scheme specifically provides for these stages.

Candidates should read the detailed notification for the exact order, qualifying conditions and documentary requirements applicable to the 2026 recruitment.

What Candidates Should Prepare Before Applications Open

Because the application window is scheduled to begin on 16 October, candidates can use the period before then to prepare their information rather than rushing to submit a form.

Useful preparation includes:

1. Check the educational qualification

Keep the Intermediate or equivalent qualification certificate and related educational records available.

2. Check personal details

Make sure the name, date of birth and other identifying information in the records that will be used for the application are consistent.

3. Review the official syllabus

APPSC separately publishes its examination schemes and syllabi. Candidates should use the post-specific syllabus rather than relying solely on coaching websites or social-media summaries.

4. Start written-examination preparation

The objective papers cover General Studies and Mental Ability together with General Science and General Mathematics at the specified level. Candidates can therefore organize preparation around the actual syllabus rather than a generic government-job study plan.

5. Take physical requirements seriously

Candidates interested in the post should not wait until after the written examination to consider the walking and medical stages.

However, physical preparation should be based on the standards and instructions in the final 2026 notification rather than an unverified figure circulating online.

What Is Still Pending in the 2026 Recruitment?

This is the section candidates should pay particular attention to.

The brief notification does not provide the same level of detail as a complete recruitment notification. Before applying, candidates should check the detailed notification for:

• final age limits;

• age-relaxation provisions;

• reservation details;

• community-wise vacancy information;

• local/zone provisions where applicable;

• physical standards;

• walking-test requirements;

• medical conditions;

• application fee and exemptions;

• detailed application instructions;

• certificate requirements;

• examination date;

• later stages and their schedule;

• any amendments or corrigenda.

The detailed notification is expected on or before 16 October 2026, so these matters should be checked again when it becomes available.

Do Not Confuse the 2026 Recruitment With Earlier FBO Notifications

APPSC has conducted Forest Beat Officer recruitment in previous years, including Notification No. 06/2025.

The existence of earlier recruitment notifications does not mean that every rule from those recruitments automatically applies to Notification No. 18/2026. APPSC's recruitment page separately lists the 2025 FBO/Assistant Beat Officer recruitment and the new 2026 FBO recruitment.

This is particularly important for:

• age;

• physical standards;

• fee;

• reservation;

• vacancy distribution;

• examination arrangements.

Candidates should always use the notification number that corresponds to their application.

How to Apply

The application is scheduled to be submitted online through the APPSC recruitment system.

The practical process should be confirmed from the detailed notification and the application facility when it is enabled.

In general, candidates should expect to:

1. Access the official APPSC website.

2. Complete or use the required candidate registration/OTR process.

3. Locate Notification No. 18/2026.

4. Enter or verify the requested information.

5. Upload documents or images where specifically required.

6. Pay the applicable fee, if required.

7. Submit the application before the closing time.

8. Preserve the application/reference details and payment record.

These steps should be treated as a practical outline rather than a substitute for the official application instructions.

Do not use an unofficial website merely because it provides an easier-looking application form.

How to Verify the Application Is Genuine

Candidates should verify the recruitment through APPSC's official website.

The official APPSC portal currently lists Notification No. 18/2026 among its 2026 recruitment notifications.

Before submitting personal information, check that:

• the notification number is 18/2026;

• the post is Forest Beat Officer;

• the service is the A.P. Forest Subordinate Service;

• the application facility is provided through the official APPSC system;

• the dates correspond with the official notification;

• any fee request matches the official instructions.

Be particularly cautious about links received through WhatsApp, Telegram, social-media posts or unofficial job websites.

Never provide an OTP, password or banking credentials to an unofficial person claiming to process an APPSC application.

Examination Date and Further Updates

The examination date was not available in the recruitment information reviewed for this article.

Candidates should therefore not rely on a date circulated through coaching channels unless APPSC subsequently publishes it.

APPSC may later publish:

• examination schedules;

• hall-ticket information;

• corrections or corrigenda;

• examination notices;

• results;

• keys and objections;

• physical-test information;

• medical-examination instructions.

Candidates should monitor the official APPSC website rather than relying exclusively on third-party recruitment pages.

Check the Latest Official Notification Before Applying

Because this recruitment is currently at the brief-notification stage, candidates should perform one final verification immediately before submitting an application.

Check these six items:

1. Age: Is the applicant within the final 2026 age limit?

2. Qualification: Does the applicant meet the exact educational requirement?

3. Physical standards: Does the applicant satisfy the applicable physical requirements?

4. Fee: What fee and exemptions apply to the applicant's category?

5. Dates: Is the application window still open?

6. Portal: Is the application being submitted through the official APPSC system?

The detailed notification should take priority over summaries published elsewhere.

Key Takeaways

• APPSC has issued Notification No. 18/2026 for Forest Beat Officer in the A.P. Forest Subordinate Service.

• The notification is dated 15 September 2026 and currently identifies 23 provisional vacancies.

• The published pay scale is ₹25,220–₹80,910; this should not be interpreted as guaranteed starting take-home pay.

• The scheduled application period is 16 October to 5 November 2026, closing at 11:59 PM.

• Intermediate or an equivalent qualification is identified for the post, subject to the detailed notification.

• The recruitment includes a qualifying essay, objective written papers, a walking test and medical examination.

• The written examination includes General Studies and Mental Ability and General Science and General Mathematics papers, with negative marking for incorrect answers.

• Candidates should not assume that age limits, physical measurements, fees or category-specific concessions from older FBO recruitments automatically apply to 2026.

• The detailed notification expected on or before 16 October 2026 should be checked before applying.

• The official APPSC website is the authoritative place to verify the notification, application facility and subsequent recruitment updates.

Disclaimer

Direct Govt News is an independent information website and is not the Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission or any other government department unless explicitly stated otherwise.

Government recruitment rules, vacancies, dates, eligibility requirements, fees and application procedures can change through notifications, amendments or corrigenda. Eligibility, selection and appointment are determined by the responsible government authority. Candidates should read the latest official APPSC notification and application instructions before submitting personal information or paying any applicable fee.

Related Articles: 

Candidates who are also looking for government-supported education opportunities can read our guide to the AICTE Pragati Scholarship 2026-27, including eligibility and application information.

If an income certificate is required for another government benefit or application, see our guide on how to apply for an Income Certificate and the information applicants should check before applying.

External Resources

Candidates should also refer to the official Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission website for application instructions, notices and subsequent updates related to Notification No. 18/2026.

AICTE Pragati Scholarship 2026-27: Eligibility, Last Date & Apply

AICTE Pragati Scholarship 2026-27: Eligibility, Last Date & Apply Online

The AICTE Pragati Scholarship 2026-27 is a government scholarship scheme for eligible girl students pursuing technical education in India. For the 2026-27 academic year, the National Scholarship Portal (NSP) lists two separate Pragati schemes:

• AICTE – Pragati Scholarship Scheme for Girl Students (Technical Degree)

• AICTE – Pragati Scholarship Scheme for Girl Students (Technical Diploma)

The current NSP schedule shows that applications opened on 1 June 2026 and the last date for student applications is 31 October 2026. The later dates shown on NSP relate to verification and should not be confused with the student application deadline.

Students should also understand that One-Time Registration (OTR) is separate from submitting the scholarship application. NSP currently states that OTR is mandatory for scholarship applications and provides each student with a unique 14-digit OTR number.

Pragati Scholarship 2026-27: Important Dates

The current National Scholarship Portal schedule for both Pragati schemes is:

Activity	Date
Applications open	1 June 2026
Student application deadline	31 October 2026
Defective application verification	15 November 2026
Institute verification	15 November 2026
DNO/SNO/MNO verification	30 November 2026

These dates are currently displayed by NSP for both the Technical Degree and Technical Diploma Pragati schemes.

Which date should students remember?

The most important date for an applicant is:

31 October 2026 — last date for student application.

The 15 November and 30 November dates are for later verification stages. They do not extend the student application window.

Therefore, a student who has not submitted an application by 31 October should not assume that the November verification dates provide additional time to start a new application.

What Are the Two Pragati Scholarship Schemes?

NSP currently lists two separate AICTE Pragati scholarships for girl students:

1. Technical Degree

This is the Pragati scheme listed for eligible students pursuing qualifying technical degree programmes.

2. Technical Diploma

This is the separate Pragati scheme listed for eligible students pursuing qualifying technical diploma programmes.

The correct selection depends on the technical programme in which the student is enrolled.

Students should not choose a scheme merely because both contain the word Pragati. Before submitting the application, open the current scheme details and confirm that the course, institution and other eligibility conditions match the applicant's circumstances.

Who Can Apply for Pragati Scholarship?

Pragati is specifically identified on NSP as a scholarship scheme for girl students pursuing eligible technical education.

However, being a girl student and studying a technical course does not by itself establish eligibility.

The applicant must satisfy the conditions applicable to the particular Pragati scheme, including requirements relating to the technical programme, institution, admission and other conditions specified by AICTE.

Older AICTE Pragati scheme documents describe the programme as supporting girls pursuing technical education and include conditions relating to first-year admission, AICTE-approved institutions, family income and merit-based selection.

Because detailed conditions can be revised between academic years, students should use the current 2026–27 scheme specification and FAQ on NSP as the final reference rather than relying on an older blog post or social-media graphic.

What Is the Pragati Scholarship Amount?

The scholarship amount is an important point that should be checked against the current 2026–27 scheme specification.

Older AICTE Pragati documents describe a scholarship framework involving ₹30,000 per student per year or the actual tuition fee, whichever is lower, with provisions for certain expenses in cases involving tuition-fee waiver or reimbursement.

However, those documents relate to earlier versions of the scheme. They should not automatically be treated as confirmation of every financial provision for 2026–27.

Therefore, applicants should check the current Pragati Specifications/FAQ displayed on NSP before relying on a particular scholarship amount or expenditure rule.

This distinction is important because scholarship websites sometimes continue to display figures from earlier academic years.

One-Time Registration (OTR): What Does It Mean?

OTR means One-Time Registration.

NSP currently states that OTR is mandatory for scholarship applications. It is a unique 14-digit number issued to the student and is intended to remain applicable throughout the student's academic career on NSP.

OTR should not be confused with the actual Pragati application.

A simplified process is:

Complete OTR → Log in to NSP → Select Pragati scheme → Fill application → Submit → Verification → Track status

NSP also states that students can use their OTR ID and password to fill and check fresh and renewal applications from AY 2024-25 onward.

How to Apply for Pragati Scholarship 2026-27

Applications should be made through the official National Scholarship Portal.

Open the National Scholarship Portal

Step 1: Complete OTR

First complete the required One-Time Registration on NSP.

Keep the OTR number and login information secure. Do not share passwords, OTPs or authentication information with people claiming that they can guarantee scholarship approval.

Step 2: Log in to NSP

After OTR registration, use the student login facility provided by NSP.

The portal provides access for completing and checking fresh and renewal scholarship applications.

Step 3: Select the Correct Pragati Scheme

Look for the AICTE Pragati listings.

Choose:

• Technical Degree, if the applicant is pursuing an eligible technical degree; or

• Technical Diploma, if the applicant is pursuing an eligible technical diploma.

Do not select the category until the programme details have been checked against the current scheme conditions.

Step 4: Check the Scheme Requirements

Read the current scheme specification and FAQ before completing the application.

Check:

• programme eligibility;

• institution eligibility;

• admission conditions;

• income requirements, where applicable;

• applicant category requirements;

• documentation requirements;

• any renewal conditions.

This step is particularly important because older AICTE documents may contain conditions or financial figures that have changed over time.

Step 5: Complete the Application

Enter the requested personal, academic, institutional and other information carefully.

Make sure names, dates, academic details and other information are consistent with the documents being used for verification.

Step 6: Review Before Final Submission

Review the complete application before submitting it.

Pay particular attention to:

• personal details;

• course and year;

• institution;

• bank information;

• Aadhaar-related information where requested;

• academic information;

• uploaded documents.

Do not assume that an application can always be freely edited after final submission.

Step 7: Submit Before 31 October 2026

The current NSP deadline for student applications is:

31 October 2026.

It is better to submit before the final day rather than depending on the portal being available without problems during the last few hours.

What Happens After Submission?

Submitting the application is not the same as receiving final scholarship approval.

The current NSP schedule shows subsequent verification stages.

For Pragati 2026-27, the displayed schedule is:

Student application → Defective application verification → Institute verification → DNO/SNO/MNO verification

The current dates are:

• 15 November 2026 — defective application verification;

• 15 November 2026 — institute verification;

• 30 November 2026 — DNO/SNO/MNO verification.

Consequently, an application can remain under verification after the student has successfully submitted it.

What Does Defective Application Mean?

A defective application is not necessarily the same as a rejected application.

If an application is identified as defective during the relevant verification process, the applicant should follow the instructions shown in NSP and take any permitted corrective action within the applicable time.

This is why students should retain copies or records of:

• the submitted application;

• application/reference details;

• uploaded documents;

• relevant status messages.

The exact correction facility available can depend on the stage of processing.

How to Check Pragati Scholarship Application Status

After submission, students should periodically check their application through the National Scholarship Portal.

NSP provides student facilities for accessing scholarship applications and checking their status.

If institute verification is pending, the student may need to contact the college or institute's designated scholarship/nodal authority to understand whether any action is required.

Students should not treat a successful login or application submission message as proof of final approval.

Common Pragati Scholarship Mistakes to Avoid

1. Selecting the wrong scheme

Degree and diploma students should select the category that corresponds to their technical programme.

2. Treating OTR as the completed application

OTR is a registration requirement. It does not by itself mean that the Pragati scholarship application has been submitted.

3. Waiting until 31 October

The application deadline is 31 October. Technical or authentication problems close to the deadline can leave little time for correction.

4. Assuming November is an application extension

It is not. The November dates shown by NSP are verification deadlines.

5. Relying on old scholarship amounts

Older AICTE documents contain historical Pragati financial provisions. Students should check the current 2026–27 scheme specification before relying on a particular amount.

6. Ignoring application status

After submission, continue checking the application instead of assuming that verification has been completed.

7. Using unofficial websites

The safest application route is the official National Scholarship Portal.

Be cautious about websites or individuals asking for money in return for guaranteed scholarship approval.

Can a Student Apply for More Than One Scholarship on NSP?

NSP currently states that from academic year 2026–27, students may apply for one merit-based scholarship scheme and one or more welfare-based scholarship schemes, subject to the eligibility conditions of the respective schemes.

This does not mean that every student can receive multiple scholarships.

Applicants should read the conditions of each scheme and check whether the schemes they are considering can be applied for or combined under the applicable rules.

Pragati Scholarship 2026-27: Application Checklist

Before submitting the application, students should check:

• I am applying under the correct Pragati category.

• My technical programme is eligible under the current scheme conditions.

• My institution meets the applicable requirements.

• I have completed NSP OTR.

• I have my OTR details available.

• My personal and academic information is accurate.

• My supporting information/documents are ready.

• I have reviewed the application before final submission.

• I will submit it by 31 October 2026.

• I will retain evidence of submission.

• I will monitor the application status after submission.

• I will respond appropriately if the application is marked defective or requires further action.

Pragati Scholarship 2026-27 FAQs

What is the last date for Pragati Scholarship 2026-27?

The current NSP schedule lists 31 October 2026 as the last date for student applications for both the Technical Degree and Technical Diploma Pragati schemes.

When did Pragati Scholarship applications open?

The current NSP listing shows 1 June 2026 as the opening date for both Pragati schemes.

Is OTR compulsory for Pragati Scholarship?

Yes. NSP currently states that OTR is required to apply for scholarships on the portal.

Is Pragati Scholarship available for diploma students?

Yes. NSP separately lists the AICTE – Pragati Scholarship Scheme for Girl Students (Technical Diploma).

Is there a separate Pragati scheme for technical degree students?

Yes. NSP separately lists the AICTE – Pragati Scholarship Scheme for Girl Students (Technical Degree).

Is 15 November 2026 the last date to apply?

No. The student application deadline is 31 October 2026. The 15 November date shown on NSP relates to subsequent verification stages.

Is 30 November 2026 the student application deadline?

No. The current NSP schedule identifies 30 November as the deadline for DNO/SNO/MNO verification, not for submitting a new student application.

Where should I apply for Pragati Scholarship?

Students should use the official National Scholarship Portal.

National Scholarship Portal — scholarships.gov.in

Does completing OTR mean my Pragati application is complete?

No. OTR is a mandatory registration step. The student must still log in, select the appropriate scholarship scheme, complete the application and submit it.

Final Takeaway

For Pragati Scholarship 2026-27, the current National Scholarship Portal lists two schemes: one for eligible Technical Degree students and another for eligible Technical Diploma students.

The most important date for applicants is 31 October 2026, which is the current student application deadline. The later dates of 15 November 2026 and 30 November 2026 relate to verification stages and should not be treated as extensions of the application window.

Students should complete their mandatory OTR, select the correct Pragati category, carefully review their information and submit the scholarship application through NSP before the deadline.

Because detailed scholarship conditions and financial provisions can change between academic years, applicants should verify the current 2026–27 scheme specification and FAQ on NSP before submitting their application.

Official portal: National Scholarship Portal

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